diffeomorphism
- From: liting0612@xxxxxxxxx
- Date: 27 Nov 2005 15:43:54 -0800
I have been thought about sth like the converse of Inverse Function
Theorem.
If f is a diffeomorphism from U to V, f and its inverse are
continously differentiable of all orders, then, for each p in U, will
the derivative of f at p is one-to-one or locally invertible?
Thanks for answering me. :)
.
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