Re: Well Ordering the Reals



In article <MPG.1df66ba7fafd50d298a793@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Tony Orlow <aeo6@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

> Daryl McCullough said:

> > You can prove that f(s) is well-defined for every infinite bitstring
> > except for the bitstring with all 1s, and the bitstring with all 0s.
> > You can also prove that every real r is equal to f(s) for some (finite
> > or infinite) bitstring s.
>
> Can you? I am not sure how this is done, but I can see intuitively that this
> set covers the reals, at least given infinite bit strings. Thanks. Now all
> one
> needs to do beyond that is partition it into countably infinite subsets, and
> establish a well ordering. Gee, that should be easy! ;)

We will not bate our breaths while we wait.
.



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