Re: Laplace Inverse of s/(s+a)

Well the Laplace transform of (1-t/a)*e^(-t/a) is in fact
a^2 s / (1+as)^2
which is not what you are trying to find the inverse of.

To solve it you break it up into its partial fraction decompsition
which Anon has told you. You then match each fraction to a known
Laplace transform. that is you should know that the Laplace transform
of the Dirac measure is 1 etc...


steve

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