Re: probability problem
- From: "mensanator@xxxxxxxxxxx" <mensanator@xxxxxxx>
- Date: 7 Dec 2005 18:45:13 -0800
mensanator@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
> Greenleaf@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
> > How do you do a question of the type, 2 players are throwing dice,
>
> Does "dice" mean 2 six-sided dice?
>
> > taking turns, and the first to get a 6 wins the game.
> > What are the chances that the first person to throw the dice
> > will win,
>
> Slightly higher since the first player goes first (because this is
> random selection WITH replacement, i.e., the numbers on the
> dice don't change from player to player).
>
> >and of the second person?
>
> Lower. The chances could be equal if you do random selection
> WITHOUT replacement, say by placing 6 slips of paper in a hat
> and draw and discard until someone gets the 6.
>
> That's important if you find yourself in a Russian Roulette
> tournament. If they spin the chamber before EACH trigger pull,
> you will want to go last. If the chamber is spun only once, then
> it doesn't matter.
>
> >
> > I get an answer of 7/12 for the first person,
>
> That's why I asked if there was one or 2 dice. Either way, I don't
> know how you came up with 7/12. The odds of 2 dice showing 6
> is 5/36.
>
> > but an answer of 5/12 + (1/12) * (5/6)^n for the second person.
>
> But the (5/6)^n makes me think perhaps you're using just one die.
>
> >It makes
> > sense if n tends to infinity but if not (and in a real game it wouldn't)
> > then how would you interpret the result, since then the chances
> > that either of the two players will win is greater than 1.
>
> A clue!
>
> > I think there was a mistake or something.
>
> Yep, for 2 dice the odds of a 6 showing on the first throw are 5/36.
>
> Same odds for the second throw. BUT...
>
> ...there is only a second throw IF the first throw is NOT a 6. And
> the odds of that are 31/36. So to win on the second throw you must
> roll a 6 (5/36) AND the previous throw must NOT be a 6 (31/36).
>
> Same for throws 3, 4, 5, 6, etc. To win on throw N, the odds are
>
> (5/36) * (31/36)^N
Starting with N=0.
>
> you must roll a 6 and ALL previous throws must NOT be 6.
>
> Now to figure up what A's total chances are, sum to infinity all the
> odd numbered throws. And for B, sum the even throws.
>
> These sums will not exceed 1. In fact, the two added together will
> equal 1.
>
>
> >
> > Thanks in advance.
.
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- probability problem
- From: Greenleaf
- Re: probability problem
- From: mensanator@xxxxxxxxxxx
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