Re: Another question about derivatives

On Mon, 26 Dec 2005 12:02:55 -0800, The World Wide Wade
<waderameyxiii@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

>In article
><1135625922.654371.258210@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
> "Stephen J. Herschkorn" <sjherschko@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>
>> Let f be a continuous, real-valued function on the open interval
>> (-1, 1). Suppose f is differentiable on (-1, 0) U (0, 1) and that
>> f'(x) approaches 0 as x approaches 0. Is f necessarily
>> differentiable at 0?
>
>Yes, by the mean value theorem.

I don't see it.

Can you show more of the details?

quasi
.

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