Re: Proof of the Riemann hypothesis

I cannot say if it is correct. But i will ask this. He seems to first
show that there are infinite zeroes for the zeta function zeta(s)=0
infinitely times in the critical strip. What i cannot see is where his
proof implies that there exists no zeroes outside? A university
professor in the field would have found a flaw in less than twenty
minutes. I think the author must have overlooked something, since his
proof is quite too simple for such a complicated conjecture and its
more complicated implications; i would grant that his proof may be true
if he created some new mathematics but he seems to use available
methods. I hope some one that knows the subject posts about its
validity.

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