Re: Generalized of dominated convergence theorem



On Tue, 10 Jan 2006 07:33:09 -0600, David C. Ullrich
<ullrich@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

>On 9 Jan 2006 07:29:29 -0800, "Patt" <gunnnku@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>
>>Yes, That's correct. I have to assum that g_n --> g almost
>>everywhere. Thank you.
>
>What's a counterexample to the result as you originally stated it?

Oops. Of course it's very easy to give counterexamples, sorry.

My only defense for being stupid is that the problem you
identified with the proof elsewhere is not the actual
problem; the inequality you said you couldn't prove is
in fact true.


************************

David C. Ullrich
.



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