Re: probability = 1/infinite ?
- From: David C. Ullrich <ullrich@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 19 Jan 2006 10:47:40 -0600
On 19 Jan 2006 08:07:41 -0800, "Roy" <royliuk@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>Thank you very much.
>However, intuitively, it seems each outcome of x is equally likely to
>be mapped to k for the product.
>Is there any way to prove such claim? Assume random variable y has a
>uniform distribution in R.
There's no such thing as a uniform distribution on R. (That's why
he said you needed to specify a disytibution - if there were such
a thing as a uniform distribution on R then people would assume
that that was what was meant when someone said something about
a "random" real number.)
************************
David C. Ullrich
.
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