Re: Cantorian pseudomathematics

In article <MPG.1e39ce0a13172fda98a9c2@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Tony Orlow <aeo6@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

> Randy Poe said:
> >
> > Tony Orlow wrote:
> > > Randy Poe said:
> > > > I believe you accept that 1 + 2 + 3 + ... , where the sum is
> > > > over all finite N, is infinite.
> > >
> > > Why do you believe any such thing, if the values are all finite,
> > > and I manintain there are a finite number of terms? that makes no
> > > sense. That sum, for the first n terms, is n(n+1)/2,
> >
> > I agree, but I didn't ask about the first n terms. I asked about
> > the sum of ALL terms.
>
> Of which you think there are an infinite number, while I have shown
> in a number of ways to be a finite but unboundedly large number.

TO has shown no such thing. To start with, TO rejects logic as a valid
method of showing things, since he rejects all logical proofs that
conflict with what he "intuits". And what he proposes as proofs always
contain assumptions not a part of any clear axiom system.

>
> >
> > Do you think there's some finite n such that this sum is equal to
> > n(n+1)/2?

Try n = 0

Do you think that n(n+1)/2 is a finite number?

It is for finite n, and does not exist as a number otherwise.
>
> I think that if the sum from 1 through n is n(n+1)/2, and n is
> finite, that the sum is finite, so I think that the sum through n can
> only be infinite if n is infinite.

Which never happens when n is a fintie natural, and is undefined
otherwise..



>
> "Huyah Huyah Ommm. Finite, Largest, Not!"

TO at the peak of his analytic powers!
.

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