Re: An infinite number question
- From: William Elliot <marsh@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 22 Jan 2006 01:44:37 -0800
On Sat, 21 Jan 2006, rev.goetz wrote:
> I am hoping that a math expert can help me. I am working on a
> theoretical issue that deals with infinity, and I need to know the
> following: does an infinite number divided by an infinite number equal
> 0 or 1?
>
> I tend to think that the answer is 0, but I could also see that it may
> equal 1. Can any body help me with this?
>
There are infinitely many even integers and infinitely many integers.
The probability of picking at random an even integer is oo/oo = 1/2.
There are infinitely many integers divisible by n and infinitely many
integers. The probability of picking at random an integer divisible by n is
oo/oo = 1/n.
The probability of picking at random a positive integer
divisible by n is oo/oo = 1/2n.
The probability of picking an integer from 1 to n is n/oo = 0.
The probability of picking an integer other than 0 is
(oo - 1)/oo = oo/oo = 1.
So much for this nonsense of treating infinity oo, as a number.
oo is not a number and is not to be consider a number and refuses
to behave like a number and if you make it behave, you'll have
a rebellious theory.
.
- References:
- An infinite number question
- From: rev.goetz
- An infinite number question
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