Re: JSH: Same old crap
- From: "W. Dale Hall" <wd_hall@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 27 Jan 2006 09:14:47 GMT
jstevh@xxxxxxx wrote:
I'm stuck with few options with you journal killers having alerted the math world to me, while getting one of my papers yanked.
Didn't you submit a version of your SWJPAM article to the Annals? Did anyone interfere with that (or any) submission? Why do you imagine you have few options?
So I'm stuck with Usenet, and I see the same old crap, but you don't understand, I'm going to push towards resolution and note areas of agreement.
By "the same old crap", you seem to mean that the people who engage in these threads refuse to accept your arguments as being valid. It does your case no service to engage in provocative language:
1. To my understanding, no one is lying about mathematics.
2. To claim that Barry Mazur's career is soon to be ended in disgrace (as you did in a recent article on sci.crypt) is to invite ridicule. His career may be completed soon (he is close to 70 years old), but the claim that he is engaged in a conspiracy to hide long-standing errors in mathematics that you have exposed is the stuff of delusion on your part.
I'll point out that the provocative language that comes your way is also objectionable (to me); it is in large part provoked.
For instance, in the ring of algebraic integers for non-rational roots f is not coprime to them in that ring.
That's not an area of disagreement.
Claiming that it disproves my examples is false as well as my argument shows logically how results in the ring of algebraic integers necessarily lead to an apparent contradiction with what follows algebraically.
You have said "two roots divisible by f, the other coprime to f", and that simply will not hold for an irreducible cubic. The fact is that every number coprime (in the ring of algebraic integers) to any of the roots will be coprime to all the roots. This cannot be violated in any integral extension of Z that contains the roots, since once numbers are coprime in some ring they remain coprime in any extension of that ring.
The so-called contradiction is apparent only to you. Your arguments
are sufficiently vague as to mask the evident errors that make the
situation in the ring of algebraic integers appear to you to be contradictory. Make your arguments more complete, and the errors
will surely emerge.
Like you can prove a number has f as a factor, and also prove that number does not have f as a factor in the ring of algebraic integers, so when I say prove a number has f as a factor, then, in what ring?
Proving that one number is divisible by another is a matter of showing membership in the ideal generated by that other number; showing that it isn't divisible by that number is similarly a matter of showing that the first is not in that same ideal.
Your question suggests your problem. It's up to you to provide a suitable ring (or to provide a family of rings defined by some
general property, and to prove that this family is nonempty),
and then to prove that your results hold in any member of this
family. Your methods don't seem to be adequate to prove this.
What is evident from your assertions of an "object ring" is that any such ring must fail to include all roots of integral polynomials for which it contains one root (such rings surely exist). It is puzzling to imagine why such a ring should be preferable to a ring in which the presence of all such roots can be shown.
First though, it's best to consider how a number can be algebraically proven to have f as a factor.
OK, then go to the definition, and prove the existence of the number that yields the complementary factor, in the ring in question. That's how to do what you're considering. So far, I haven't seen any such proof.
What do I mean by "algebraically proven" to have a factor?
No one really knows what you mean. That's why you need to be clear in exposition. For example, the recent claim that some fact about a rational root of a monic polynomial with integer coefficients can in any way contradict Ideal theory or algebraic number theory or Galois theory shows that you fail to understand even the basic elements of these areas.
Your recent remark:
SEE how the mistake works and why it's so important for interpretations of Galois Theory to have irreducible cases where the ambiguity of the radicals hides the solutions somewhat?
again shows your ignorance. No mathematician who knows algebra is at all surprised that the roots of reducible polynomials have different properties than the roots of irreducible polynomials. At the very least, different irreducible factors of a reducible polynomial are completely independent: there is, in general, NO relationship among the roots of different irreducible factors. After all, I can take arbitrary irreducible polynomials p,q,r and produce reducible polynomials
pq, pr, qr
and since there is no general relationship among the roots of p,q,r separately, there can be no general relationship that connects the roots of pq (or pr or qr) as a single entity. However, there is a tight relationship among all the roots of an irreducible polynomial; this tight relationship is made explicit by Galois theory.
In fact, your interpretation of ambiguity of radicals is a naive attempt to speak to the fact that the Galois group permutes roots. Galois theory is far more general, in that it is not restricted to even-order radicals (as your comments have been), but relates to roots of arbitrary irreducible polynomials. To be sure, one can treat reducible polynomials, but the action of the Galois group is necessarily one that acts independently on the roots of the separate reducible factors.
James Harris
Dale. .
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