Re: induced homomorphism on homology groups
- From: "Shmuel (Seymour J.) Metz" <spamtrap@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 02 Mar 2006 15:42:40 -0500
In <1141278781.681563.69770@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, on
03/01/2006
at 09:53 PM, berthuffman@xxxxxxxxx said:
for a continuous map f : X --> Y we can an induced map on the free
abelian groups spanned by singular n-chains for each n, f_# : C_n
(X) --> C_n (Y), where we simply compose an n-chain with f.
Not quite. You compose each of the symplexes in the n-chain with f.
Now is this map simply defined by f_* ( [s] ) = [ f o s ], where s
is an n-chain in X and [s] is the equivalence class of s?
No, it's defined by f_* ( [s] ) = [ f_#(s) ]
so how does that subset condition imply induced homomorphism?
Because f_# satisfies the conditions of the theorem, which you stated
you had verified.
if that wasn't satisfied there wouldn't be an induced homomorphism?
The theorem states that it *is* satisfied.
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Shmuel (Seymour J.) Metz, SysProg and JOAT <http://patriot.net/~shmuel>
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