Re: Beal's conjecture



Hi,
Following Your arguments:
I looked at two sources and the conjecture can be
read one of two ways:

(1) a^x + b^y = c^z and x,y,z > 2 implies a,b, and
c have a common
factor d > 1

(2) a^x + b^y = c^z and x,y,z > 2 implies (a,b),
(a,c), and (b,c) are
not all 1.

Which is correct?

I believe these are equivalent. Suppose a,b have a
common prime
factor. Then this prime divides c^z and hence must
divide c also.

Similarly for any common factor of a,c or b,c...

regards, chip

Disproof for a^x + b^y = c^z.....(*)
with my parameter uses in the fact
equality (ka)^x + (kb)^y = (kc)^z
Once such equality falls so also (*)

regards, roman
Ro-bin
.



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