Language question
- From: "Martin" <sleziak@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 13 Mar 2006 03:05:34 -0800
Hi!
I often use phrases like:
it holds x=y
(Probably it comes from the fact, that in Slovak one says "plati x=y";
I guess something similar can be saind in German "es gillt x=y").
My advisor thinks that the phrase "it holds x=y" is incorrect (from the
viewpoint of English grammar) and that I should use "x=y holds"
instead.
Of course, this is no big deal, but sometimes it is a problem. Example:
For any x in C it holds x>=y.
For any x in C x>=y holds.
There are two formulars one after the others - I don't find this good.
(As well Knuth doesn't recommend this in his lecture notes on
mathematical writing.)
Of course one can say:
For any x in C the inequality x>=y holds.
But I don't like including the inequality, the equality, the inclusion
etc. all the time.
I thought that instead of looking in various grammar books, it is
bettter to ask here - since plenty of native speakers which are active
mathematicians.
So what do you think?
Is the phrase "it holds x in A" wrong?
What about "it holds that x in A"?
TIA
Martin
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: Language question
- From: Martin
- Re: Language question
- From: Randy Poe
- Re: Language question
- From: David C . Ullrich
- Re: Language question
- From: Oscar Lanzi III
- Re: Language question
- From: William Elliot
- Re: Language question
- Prev by Date: Re: derivatives and determinant
- Next by Date: Re: Language question
- Previous by thread: measurable functions and convergence
- Next by thread: Re: Language question
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|