Re: Probability in an infinite sample space




Robert Israel wrote:
In article <ITSnetNOTcom#virgil-FDCF25.20173719032006@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Virgil <ITSnetNOTcom#virgil@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
In article <1142823881.738119.307930@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
"mikeh106@xxxxxxxxxxx" <mikeh106@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

If you choose a natural number at random, that it will be a multiple of
3 is there a 1/3, 1/2, or undefined chance?

Does it mean something to select "at random" from an infinite number of
objects?

To select something "at random" from any set means that every member of
the set has the same chance of being selected as any other.

That requires that a selection at random from any infinite set must
assign probability zero to each member's being drawn.

For countably infinite sets, this is impossible, as countably many 0's
must still add up to 0.

True. What one can say is that the set of multiples of three has
asymptotic density 1/3, i.e. if P_N is the probability of obtaining
a multiple of 3 when selecting a member of {1,...,N} with equal
probabilities, then lim_{N -> infty} P_N = 1/3.

Robert Israel israel@xxxxxxxxxxx
Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel
University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada

Another way of looking at it would be to say that picking a random
natural number n would entail the following three equally likely
events.
n =_ 0 (mod 3), n =_ 1 (mod 3) or n =_ 2 (mod 3)
so the probability of getting a multiple of 3 is the probability of
getting the event 0 =_ mod (3). That is 1/3.
Muhammad
(PS. If someone has already pointed it out in the thread, I apologize.)

.



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