Re: a question about reducible polynomials
- From: "Peter L. Montgomery" <Peter-Lawrence.Montgomery@xxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 2 Apr 2006 00:43:29 GMT
In article <30342157.1143937657757.JavaMail.jakarta@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
amanda <suyimesnowfish@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
if f(x) is a polynomial of integral coefficients with deg(f)=n, then why there are infinitely many integers m such that f(x)-m is reducible over Q[x], where Q means rationals.
thanks
Because of a hypothesis n >= 2 which you omitted.
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