a question about reducible polynomials
- From: amanda <suyimesnowfish@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 01 Apr 2006 19:27:07 EST
if f(x) is a polynomial of integral coefficients with deg(f)=n, then why there are infinitely many integers m such that f(x)-m is reducible over Q[x], where Q means rationals.
thanks
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