Re: a question about reducible polynomials
- From: "Chip Eastham" <hardmath@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 1 Apr 2006 17:20:51 -0800
amanda wrote:
if f(x) is a polynomial of integral coefficients with deg(f)=n, then why there are infinitely many integers m such that f(x)-m is reducible over Q[x], where Q means rationals.
thanks
This sounds like homework, so let me offer a way for you to think it
through for yourself.
What value(s) of m would allow f(x) - m to have a factor of low degree?
As Peter points out the polynomial f(x) cannot be reducible if deg(f)
= 1, but what condition on m would give a factor of f(x) - m of degree
1?
regards, chip
.
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