Re: a question about reducible polynomials
- From: Peter-Lawrence.Montgomery@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx (Peter L. Montgomery)
- Date: 02 Apr 2006 04:01:37 GMT
In article
<30342157.1143937657757.JavaMail.jakarta@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
amanda <suyimesnowfish@xxxxxxxxxxx> writes:
if f(x) is a polynomial of integral coefficients with deg(f)=n, thenwhy there are infinitely many integers m such that f(x)-m is reducible
over Q[x], where Q means rationals.
thanksBecause of a hypothesis n >= 2 which you omitted.
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