Re: a question about reducible polynomials

In article <30342157.1143937657757.JavaMail.jakarta@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
amanda <suyimesnowfish@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

if f(x) is a polynomial of integral coefficients with deg(f)=n, then
why there are infinitely many integers m such that f(x)-m is
reducible over Q[x], where Q means rationals.

Because there are infinitely many linear polynomials x-c which you
can force to be a factor of f(x)-m.




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