Re: Calculus XOR Probability
- From: Tony Orlow <aeo6@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 17 Apr 2006 16:38:04 -0400
Matt Gutting said:
Tony Orlow wrote:
imaginatorium@xxxxxxxxxxxxx said:
Tony Orlow wrote:
No, I talk more about completed actual infinities, and Han speaks more aboutOK, I'll bite. What does it mean to "consider the infinite case for
unboundedly large but more or less finite sets with constant relationships, but
there's not a lot of difference there, really. Brian likes to say I am talking
about the "imponderably large but finite", because I am dealing with these
infinite values similarly to finite values. So, what Han and I agree on is that
considering infinities is a lot like considering the infinite case for finite
sets, ...
finite sets"? (I'm not entirely sure I can even parse it correctly.)
Brian Chandler
http://imaginatorium.org
Basically, all I'm saying boils down to inductive proof of equality holding for
infinite n. If some relationship between measures of a set holds for all finite
cases greater than some n, then it can be considered to hold for infinite n,
How do you know that there are any infinite n in the first place?
Because there are sets with infinite numbers of elements, such as any set of
all reals in a finite interval. You cannot have half a real number in your set,
so this infinite number is integral, and therefore part of what I consider the
integers, or hyperintegers. Otherwise, infinite sets cannot have a size, which
makes the "infinite" part kind of meaningless.
Matt
*** Posted via a free Usenet account from http://www.teranews.com ***
--
Smiles,
Tony
.
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