Re: nice integral inequality
- From: José Carlos Santos <jcsantos@xxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 22 Apr 2006 19:54:46 +0100
eugene wrote:
I have a problem which seems interesting to me, but i don't have any
idea how to approach it:
Let f:[0,1]->C -Lebesgue integrable. Prove that there exists a
measurabke subset of [0,1] such that
| int_0^1 f(x)dx | >= (1/pi) * int_0^1 |f(x)|dx.
What has this inequality to do with a measurable subset of [0,1]?
Best regards,
Jose Carlos Santos
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: nice integral inequality
- From: tommm
- Re: nice integral inequality
- References:
- nice integral inequality
- From: eugene
- nice integral inequality
- Prev by Date: Re: zorn's lemma and ascending chain condition
- Next by Date: Re: background picture with Maple 10
- Previous by thread: nice integral inequality
- Next by thread: Re: nice integral inequality
- Index(es):
Relevant Pages
|
