Re: is it possible
- From: israel@xxxxxxxxxxx (Robert Israel)
- Date: 25 Apr 2006 22:01:34 GMT
In article <1146001854.850852.277720@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Fedor <malabar_carotte@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
g(x)=1 ? or maybe you want deg(g) >= 1 ..
If f(n)=0 for some n it is impossible
Why so? Is not gcd(0,1) = 1?
if f(n)<>-1 for all n, take for example g=f+1
Robert Israel israel@xxxxxxxxxxx
Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel
University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada
.
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