Re: Question

In article <e2qqh5$7gc$1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Dave Seaman <dseaman@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
On Thu, 27 Apr 2006 15:13:03 +0000 (UTC), Arturo Magidin wrote:

We can define an equivalence relation among sequences by saying that
the sequence {a_i} and the sequence {b_i} are "equivalent" if and only
if the sequence {a_i-b_i} is a Cauchy sequence.

But that would make any two Cauchy sequences equivalent. I think what
you mean is {a_i} and {b_i} are equivalent iff {a_i-b_i} converges to 0.

Quite right. Sorry about that. That's what happens when I try to
squeeze what is about two weeks of lectures into a single post.

--
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"It's not denial. I'm just very selective about
what I accept as reality."
--- Calvin ("Calvin and Hobbes")
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Arturo Magidin
magidin@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx

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