Re: Question
- From: "zuhair" <zaljohar@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 30 Apr 2006 23:28:16 -0700
Virgil wrote:
In article <1146420387.565174.229030@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
"zuhair" <zaljohar@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Divide that number by itself will only result in itself, since it is
infinite?!
Zuhair
Any number that it is possible to divide by, divided by itself had
better be equal to 1, or all of mathematics will collapse.
Zuhair claims to have "numbers" x such that x/x = x.
Not even TO is that far in the bag.
Ok , dear Virgil.
Aleph-0 * Aleph-0 = Aleph-0
so it is possible to say that Aleph-0/Aleph-0 = Aleph-0
Of coarse I now that Aleph-0/Aleph-0 = |x| : x<=Aleph-0
so division of Aleph-0 by itself don't reveal number one as you
thought. It results in a variable and not a number.
However Divsion of Aleph-0 by a finite number n yields Aleph-0 itself.
Same thing to be applied to heigher cardinals like 2^Aleph-0.
So for example [1/(2^Aleph-0)] /2 = 1/2*(2^Aleph-0) = 1/(2^Aleph-0)
So this small infinite number cannot be halfed
Zuhair
.
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