Re: "Collatz 3n+1 conjecture is unprovable" paper

My point is that specifying the formal language is irrelevant to my
proof. What is important is the lemma that in any language there are
always "random" vectors.

For any bit string, there exists a "language" in which it can be
represented by a single bit. It's quite simple to show....
For a string S, my "language" is...
1 = S
0X = X

So, all strings, except the empty string, take a single bit to
represent in the right "language". This pretty much submarines your
entire argument... Why have such a weak definition of random, and then
a paragraph to weakly explain shannon entropy?

Your proof gets a little gibberish as you start to mix and mash
terminology and blindly reference sources. I'm not going to go look up
a source and make sure what they proved and what you proved are
actually the same thing. Especially since I'm pretty positive none of
them used the same definition of random as you, therefore your claim
that someone else proved something is "random", by your definition, is
very likely wrong.

Finding a proof for the Collatz conjecture is as "simple" as finding
the right "language" to collapse the infinite complexity into the
finite... Your logic essentially says a (fininte) representation of pi
can't exist. Certainly a numerical representation of pi isn't possible,
but "ratio of circumference to diameter" is finite and infinitely
precise.

.

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