Re: naive question from a non-mathematician
- From: "quat" <spam@xxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 27 May 2006 11:14:42 -0700
Are a real number x and a complex number whose real part is x and whose
imaginary part is zero mathematically eqivalent? For example, is
(real).123 mathematically eqivalent to (complex).123 + 0.0i?
The short answer is:
Yes, they are equal.
Isn't that almost like saying the vector (x, 0) = x? But this can't be true
because a vector is not a real number, so you can't compare apples and
oranges? Of course, in some sense you can upcast a real number to a complex
number in a natural way and vice versa.
.
- Follow-Ups:
- Re: naive question from a non-mathematician
- From: David C . Ullrich
- Re: naive question from a non-mathematician
- From: cody . roux
- Re: naive question from a non-mathematician
- References:
- naive question from a non-mathematician
- From: John Smith
- Re: naive question from a non-mathematician
- From: N. Silver
- naive question from a non-mathematician
- Prev by Date: Re: Infinite Knots
- Next by Date: Re: any idea?
- Previous by thread: Re: naive question from a non-mathematician
- Next by thread: Re: naive question from a non-mathematician
- Index(es):