Re: naive question from a non-mathematician

On Sun, 28 May 2006 18:36:16 GMT, Stephen Montgomery-Smith
<stephen@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

David C. Ullrich wrote:
On Sun, 28 May 2006 18:12:02 GMT, Stephen Montgomery-Smith
<stephen@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:


G.E. Ivey wrote:

It's hard for me to believe this has gone on so long. While every "quibble" is correct (and mathematicians love quibbles!) John Smith did say "mathematically equivalent", not "identical" or "the same" or "equal" so I would have no trouble at all accepting "Yes, they are mathematically equivalent".

That's a great answer. But I don't think it could be fully appreciated
without the long discussion that preceded it.


I think the question of whether this could be fully appreciated
without that long discussion is something that needs to be addressed.
At great length.

Yes, but I think that most people will read your statement as sarcasm.

Surely not. I mean if I'd posted it anonymously they might read
it as sarcasm, but knowing it comes from me, surely not.

As such, those very people who were frothing at the mouth in the very
anticipation of generating and continuing such a discussion may now feel
a certain peer pressure not to do so, because they might consider that
others will consider them idiots for doing so.

Thus by making such a request, you might in fact be creating the very
opposite thing that you asked for.

Stephen


************************

David C. Ullrich
.

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