Re: Collatz Question
- From: "Proginoskes" <CCHeckman@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 2 Jun 2006 23:40:27 -0700
Gerry Myerson wrote:
In article <1149230700.530919.13780@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
"Proginoskes" <CCHeckman@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Gerry Myerson wrote:
In article <1149224529.567948.156320@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
"mensanator@xxxxxxxxxxx" <mensanator@xxxxxxx> wrote:
Gerry Myerson wrote:
In article <1149213435.373871.272280@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
"mensanator@xxxxxxxxxxx" <mensanator@xxxxxxx> wrote:
bill wrote:
Has the question of a loop been resolved?
Generally, no. But in my forthcoming paper
Blueprint for Failure: How to Construct a Counterexample to the
Collatz
Conjecture
this issue will be addressed. It turns out that you cannot prove
that a counterexample cannot be constructed.
Then perhaps the title of your paper should be,
How Not to Construct a Counterexample to the Collatz Conjecture
That misses the point.
Counterexamples ARE constructed.
Hold on a second. You've actually constructed a counterexample
to the Collatz Conjecture?
No, I think you've misapplied the double-negative principle.
Whatever I've done, it wasn't that. See a few lines up, where it says,
"Counterexamples ARE constructed"? That sure as heck looks to me
like a claim that he has constructed a counterexample - and he has,
too, just not to the Collatz Conjecture, as commonly understood.
I must have miscounted >'s, then. However, I suspect that mensanator is
pulling a bunch of people's legs here.
--- Christopher Heckman
.
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