Re: Is 1/(x-a)^2 locally Lipschitz continuous?
- From: A N Niel <anniel@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 16 Jun 2006 08:49:47 -0400
In article <4ffmvdF1hikddU1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>, Konrad Viltersten
<tmp1@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
I understand it can't be globally Lipschitz, because of the
unbounded derivative at the singularity. However, my wife
and i fight about whether it's locally Lipschitz.
I say it is too. She claims foolishly it's not.
Who's the man here?
What is the definition of "locally Lipschitz"?
.
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