Re: Can someone explain this proof, please?

Timothy Murphy wrote:

You say that either a_i b_{j-i} = 1 for some i < j,
or else a_i b_{j-i} = 0 for all i < j.
Why is this so?
Why could we not have a_i b_{j-i} = 1/2 ?

I don't believe it!

Which of the following four numbers
0 x 0
0 x 1
1 x 0
1 x 1
do you think could possibly equal 1/2 ?

Victor Meldrew

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