Re: The Forebears Paradox

On Mon, 2006-09-04 at 09:49 -0400, Jesse F. Hughes wrote:
Jeremy Boden <jeremy@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> writes:

On Mon, 2006-09-04 at 11:20 +1000, Peter Webb wrote:
"Michael" <michael.greaney@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:1157284535.177582.121840@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
...

If your wife is Caucasian (as I assume you are), you can pretty much bet on
having common ancestors as a certainty. Most Europeans are related to
Europen royalty (which in turn is inter-related), basically because many of
the European Kings had lots of children.
...

I see.
Whilst the plebs all had only 2.4 children, the Kings had a lot of
children?
How did they do this? It is my understanding that kings are usually
male, whilst it actually requires the presence of a female for child
production.

Right. But a king can have 30 kids while thirty peasant women have
only one kid each. Relatively speaking, that king had lots of kids.

In days of yore...
Poor families had lots of children due to high mortality rates. There
were no pension plans available at this time.
Henry VIII go through 6 wives but only one(??) child was produced.

--
Jeremy Boden


.

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