Re: Probable Prime Number
- From: "Pubkeybreaker" <Robert_silverman@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 28 Sep 2006 05:25:34 -0700
bassam king karzeddin wrote:
Dear All
I would like to introduce the following conjecture about prime factorization without having a proof or a counter example or a reference.
What is it that compels cranks to put forth such conjectures without
even bothering to
test their "conjecture"????
The Conjecture:
"If, n = (p^2 + q^2) / 2, where, (p, q) are odd prime numbers, then, (n) has at most three distinct odd prime numbers factors"
It is nonsense. I found a counter-example on my FIRST try.
Hint: let p = (2^89+1)/3 and q= (2^107+1)/3. n has 7 (SEVEN!)
prime factors.
And, It follows as a result another sub conjecture with above mention conditions :
"If, (50) divides (p^2 +q^2), then the result is a good probable prime number"
If by "result", you mean quotient, then this conjecture is trivially
false as well.
.
- References:
- Probable Prime Number
- From: bassam king karzeddin
- Probable Prime Number
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