can Pythagoras's theorem be proved without the idea of the area of a rectangle being a*b
- From: "perltcl@xxxxxxxxx" <perltcl@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 2 Oct 2006 18:31:14 -0700
hi
can Pythagoras's theorem be proved without the idea of the area of a
rectangle being a*b?
(or without a definition of "some area").
it seems impossible, but I could be wrong.
.
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