Re: Are eigenvectors independent
- From: "Luke Wu" <LookSkywalker@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 8 Oct 2006 14:23:29 -0700
mareg@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
In article <4osd06Fg7ql7U2@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
=?ISO-8859-1?Q?Jos=E9_Carlos_Santos?= <jcsantos@xxxxxxxx> writes:
mareg@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
Say a matrix A has 5 eigenvalues (where one of them as multiplicity 2Not necessarily. For instance, take A equal to
as a root of characteristic equation of A).
We are able to get 2 independent eigenvectors for this multiplicity 2
eigenvalue.
I think he is *assuming* the existence of two linearly independent
eigenvectors, rather than claiming that this is always true.
It is possible, but then why did he assume that one of the eigenvalues
has multiplicity 2 as a root of characteristic equation of A? There
would be no need to assume this, since it would follow from the
existence of 2 linearly independent eigenvectors
Well, no, from that it would only follow that the corresponding eigenvalue
had multiplicity at least 2.
My understanding of the question was: suppose, just to specific, that the
charcteristic equation is (x-1)^2 (x-2)(x-3)(x-4), and suppose in addition
that there are two linearly independent eigenvectors for the eigenvalue 1.
Can we conclude that there are five linearly independent eigenvectors,
and hence a basis of eigenvectors. The answer of course is yes.
Yeap. I am not the best at wording mathematical problems, but you're
spot on.
The "of course is yes" part was never touched on in my undergrad class.
I find it peculiar, since we spent a great deal of time discussing and
proving that eigenvectors corresponding to distinct/different
eigenvalues makes up a linearly independent set.
Since we didn't discuss the reasoning behind these "other cases" I
always thought it was just obvious becausee the distinct case can be
applied several times, but then I realized it couldn't.
.
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