Re: An uncountable countable set
- From: Virgil <virgil@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 09 Oct 2006 11:43:50 -0600
In article <452a6847@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Tony Orlow <tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Virgil wrote:
In article <4529afa4@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Tony Orlow <tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Virgil wrote:
In article <45296779@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,It's not a finite number. It's the origin. A finite number is a finite
Tony Orlow <tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Virgil wrote:If zero is not a number, how does TO keep the positive numbers separated
In article <452946ad@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,I was away a couple days, but I answered this, not paying attention to
Tony Orlow <tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
Note question not answered!! But the correct answer of zero would haveLess than any finite distance. Silly!And what is the smallest finite distance?
blown TO's argument to blazes, so one can see why he would not care to
answer it.
that apparent contradiction, since I don't consider 0 really a finite
number at all. It's a point with no measure, as every number is measured
relative to that point.
from negatives?
distance from the origin. The origin is no distance from itself.
Then TO's set of real numbers is two sets separated by a non-number?
That does not match anyone else's set of reals. So TO casts himself
again into outer darkness re res mathematical.
It's a 1-D continuum with an origin, a metric space.
But where are the values of that metric if zero is not one of them?
You have no clue what the line of discussion was at this point, do you?That is not at all what I asked. So TO is doing his STRAW MAN fallacyNo. That's my point. Why should I name the smallest object which is notWhen you claim that there are ordinals greater than any finiteWhen you claim there is a LUB to the reals strictly between 0 and 1,
ordinal,
are you obligated to name the largest finite ordinal?
are you required to name the largest real strictly between 0 and 1?
infinitesimal?
thing again.
I have no idea what TO is talking about, and am reasonably sure he
doesn't either.
Then don't make yourself look silly defending questions and comments
that are irrelevant.
That is not "the reals strictly between 0 and 1" but a subset thereof.The set {(n-1)/n: n in N} is a discrete set with a LUB which is not aA "LUB" of the naturals does not have to be a natural any more than theIf it's a discrete set, then I disagree.
LUB of the the reals strictly between 0 and 1 has to be a real
strictly
between 0 and 1.
member of the set. In fact every strictly increasing sequence having a
LUB has a LUB which is not a member of the sequence.
So there is still no element within either set which is its LUB.
If the Finlayson reals are used, indeed the LUB is the maximal member of
the set of reals in [0,1). Ross, is that correct?
TO appealing to Ross is the blind asking for a lead from the blind.
.
Tony
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