another countable question,
- From: "vsgdp" <spam@xxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 12 Oct 2006 15:44:36 -0700
If A and B are countable, then A x B is countable.
If A and B infinitely countable, then:
A = {a_1, a_2, a_3, ...}
B = {b_1, b_2, b_3, ...}
A x B =
(a_1, b_1) (a_1, b_2) (a_1, b_3) ....
(a_2, b_1) (a_2, b_2) (a_2, b_3) ...
(a_3, b_1) (a_3, b_2) (a_3, b_3) ...
...
I think there are several ways to come up with the mapping (I think the book
does a similar proof where it maps a_ij-->2^i * 3^j which is a subset of Z
and by a previous theorem is countable).
But I think there is a diagonal argument that I want to understand too. I
know how to count them diagonally, but can a formula for the mapping be
obtained by that, or is it more of an "algorithm" proof that just tells you
how to do it?
.
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