Re: An uncountable countable set

In article <b653a$4537277c$82a1e228$24028@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Han de Bruijn <Han.deBruijn@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

MoeBlee wrote:

Han de Bruijn wrote:

But why are the finite ordinals not equivalent with the naturals (I mean
in mainstream mathematics)?

The set of finite ordinals IS the set of natural numbers.

x is a natural number <-> x is a finite ordinal.

Why don't you just read a textbook?

It's all very confusing. Because there also "exist" infinite ordinals,
they say.

The set of all finite ordinals is one of them.
.

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