Re: Question on permutation matrix
- From: israel@xxxxxxxxxxx (Robert Israel)
- Date: 23 Oct 2006 23:53:55 GMT
In article <gerry-0C01DD.08580324102006@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Gerry Myerson <gerry@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
In article <1161627521.753819.203470@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
mittra@xxxxxxxx wrote:
I have a rather easy question for all you gurus out there. I write the
definition below for elaborating my question.
Def: A permutation matrix is defined as a p x p binary square matrix
such that any column or row of the matrix contains only one 1 and rests
are 0s.
Question: Can this general definition be expressed in no more than p
equations (or inequations)? If yes, how? If not, can you show the proof
that it can not be?
Note that, I am not defining a particular permutation matrix, just a
generic one.
At first glance, it seems unlikely. Say p = 3. There's a 9-dimensional
space of 3 x 3 matrices, and you want 3 equations to cut that space
down to 6 points.
But perhaps we're allowed to assume that we're living in the space
of 0-1 matrices. Maybe this works:
For i from 1 to p, the sum of the squares of the entries in row i
and in column i is 2.
E.g., for
a b c
d e f
g h i
we have a^2 + b^2 + c^2 + a^2 + d^2 + g^2 = 2,
d^2 + e^2 + f^2 + b^2 + e^2 + h^2 = 2,
c^2 + f^2 + i^2 + g^2 + h^2 + i^2 = 2.
If these are 0-1 matrices, why bother squaring?
No, that doesn't do it: try
[ 0 0 0 ]
[ 1 0 1 ]
[ 1 0 0 ]
But any finite set of equations over the integers (or reals) can be
expressed with one (nonlinear) equation: try
(a+b+c-1)^2 + (d+e+f-1)^2 + (g+h+i-1)^2 + (a+d+g-1)^2 + (b+e+h-1)^2
+ (c+f+i-1)^2 = 0
Robert Israel israel@xxxxxxxxxxx
Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel
University of British Columbia Vancouver, BC, Canada
.
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