Re: little o notation
- From: "Randy Poe" <poespam-trap@xxxxxxxxx>
- Date: 5 Nov 2006 11:18:24 -0800
tuesday wrote:
Yeah, I believe that your interpretation is correct because o(1) is
supposed to go to zero. However, o(1) does not fit with my current
definition of "little o" (or I do not understand it correctly).
Supposedly, writing f(n)=o(g(n)) means that f(n)/g(n) = 0 as n ->
infinity. Then, what does o(1) "mean."
Use the definition.
The only interpretation from
the definition is that f(n)/1 = 0 as n-> infinity
Correct.
(which does not make sense).
Why does the concept of a decreasing function not make sense
to you?
Two examples: f(n) = 1/n, f(n) = exp(-n).
- Randy
.
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