Re: A simple question?
- From: David Marcus <DavidMarcus@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Mon, 6 Nov 2006 16:27:59 -0500
MoeBlee wrote:
David Marcus wrote:
MoeBlee wrote:
David Marcus wrote:
MoeBlee wrote:
I don't see why not. There's no modality of "can" in the formal theory.
"can" is a loose way of speaking, which is okay, but I don't know of
anything in IN the theory to distinguish 'can' from 'is'.
I think we can give a formal meaning (and I think Enderton would agree
with this): If we say "S is a well ordered set", then we really mean
"(S,R) is an ordered pair where S is a set, R is an ordering on S, and R
is a well ordering".
You left 'R' free in that formulation. But, other than 'S', there is
no free variable in 'S is a well ordered set'.
Well, just because you don't see it, doesn't mean it isn't (implicitly)
there. If S can be free, then why can't the (invisible) R?
Of course, any unbound variables will be bound by putting "for all"
around the entire statement.
'S' is implicity bound by a universal quantifier. But it doesn't work
for 'R' that way. Or, tell me what formulation you have in mind where
'R' is bound by a universal quantifier to translate, specifically, "S
is a well ordered set".
Does "S is a well ordered set" appear in the hypotheses or in the
conclusion?
So for your formulation
to work, it has to be, "There EXISTS an R such that <S R> is a well
ordered set" or "There EXISTS and R such that <S R> is structure in
which R is a well ordering of S."
I'd do "For all S, for all R, if <S,R> is a well ordered set, then ..."
How is it different from saying "G is an abelian group"?
First, just as a personal matter, I just don't like "<S R> is a well
ordered set." Yes, <S R> is a set, but, to me, what is well ordered is
S, not <S R> (well, actually, quite literally, <S R> is well ordered
since it is {{S} {S R}}, which is a finite set, hence it has a well
ordering; but that is not what we have in mind). So, I say S is well
ordered by R and S is a well ordered set and <S R> is a well order
structure.
I don't really follow. I suppose that technically I'm saying that a
"well ordered set" isn't a set. It is an ordered pair, etc. You seem to
want a "well ordered set" to be a set (ignoring for the moment that
formally everything is a set).
Second, I don't see the relevence of your analogy. We were talking
about formalizing "S is a well ordered set" not some other larger
statement "If S is a well ordered set, then [...]"
--
David Marcus
.
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