Re: Trig question
- From: "David T. Ashley" <dta@xxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 22 Nov 2006 14:04:16 -0500
<mitch@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:1164214916.188326.208870@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Straight to the question:
Given that 0 <= t < 2*PI
How can one prove analytically that
atan(1/tan(t/2)) = 0.5(pi - t)
There are some posts that make me wonder if this group should be renamed
"sci.math.homework" or "sci.math.homework.duesoon".
.
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