Re: Galileo's Paradox
- From: Tony Orlow <tony@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 01 Dec 2006 10:56:52 -0500
Eckard Blumschein wrote:
On 11/29/2006 7:36 PM, Tony Orlow wrote:Eckard Blumschein wrote:On 11/29/2006 3:58 PM, Tony Orlow wrote:Yes. All of the naturals are integers. Only half of all the integers are naturals.where one set contains all the elements of another, plus more, it can rightfully be considered a larger set.All of oo?
All of the points in (0,1] are in (0,2], but only half of all of the points in (0,2] are in (0,1].
You are equating two quite different notions: smaller and half as large.
Smaller means less large, meaning less than 1 times as large, as in a fraction in [0,1), such as 1/2. What is different about smaller and half as large?
In case of two finite heaps of size a and b of numbers, a=b/2 implies a<b.Generalize where possible. Why is this not true in the infinite case?
In case of a=oo and b=oo, we may have a=b/2 while a is not smaller than
b but simply not comparable: oo = oo/2.
So, you adhere, then, to the tenets of imaginary alephs and the creed of transfinitology? What you say is true for the standard generalization from the finite using the *existence* of a bijection, called cardinality, but to claim that there is no valid justification for seeking a formulaic method that produces more intuitive results is an empty statement. To say that there are not twice as infinitely many point in (0,2] and in (0,1] is equivalent to claiming that there are more points in one or the other of (0,1] and (1,2], if there is any correlation at all between this infinite count, and measure, which there clearly can be.
Tony
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