Re: Galileo's Paradox

On 30 Nov 2006 11:46:08 -0800, "Tonico" <Tonicopm@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:


Lester Zick wrote:
On Thu, 30 Nov 2006 07:32:58 -0500, Bob Kolker <nowhere@xxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:

Eckard Blumschein wrote:



I consider Dedekind wrong, and he admitted to have no evidence in order
to justify his basic idea.

What sort of evidence? Surely not empirical evidence. Mathematics done
abstractly has no empirical content whatsoever.

Except apparently for axioms and definitions.
******************************************************************
What axioms of what part of maths have "empirical" evidence in the
sense Eckard is tryuing to convey?!?

I don't know what sense Eckard is trying to convey. My response was in
reply to Bob not Eckard.

For him, and for other trolls,
Cantor "not having evidence" for his idea (what stupid this sounds!)
means that he (cantor) never foiund an aleph_null under his bed, or
that so far no one can buy aleph_beith apples out there.

Well empirical evidence would certainly be one criterion for the truth
of what one claims. Otherwise one is forced to rely on analytical
criteria for the the truth of infinities which no modern mathematikers
appear willing to assert and demonstrate.

What "empirical evidence" are there in group theory's axioms? Or in
Topology?

The axioms and definitions themselves are empirical.

~v~~
.

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