Re: Galileo's Paradox
- From: Lester Zick <dontbother@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 29 Nov 2006 11:04:36 -0700
On Wed, 29 Nov 2006 17:12:04 +0000 (UTC), stephen@xxxxxxxxxx wrote:
Six wrote:
[. . .]
You suggested I conduct my argument without using the term
'infinity'. I am quite happy to do that. I suggest you conduct the rest of
your argument without using the term 'cardinality'.
Why? Cardinality has a definition in set theory.
The issue is whether "cardinality" has a definition in mathematics not
set theory unless you're suggesting set theory is all of mathematics.
'infinity' does not have
a definition.
Sure it does. In mathematics "infinity" is the "number of
infinitesimals". Once again, Stephen, you seem to be confusing
mathematics with set "theory" which isn't really even a theory at all
because it can't be demonstrated true but merely represents a series
of analytical techniques applied to sets which certainly don't
encompass all of mathematics.
Do you really think that the two words are on an equal footing?
Actually not because "infinity" a well defined mathematical concept
whereas "cardinality" is only an ambiguously defined concept
mathematically restricted to undemonstrable set analytical techniques.
~v~~
.
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