Re: Galileo's Paradox

On 12/8/2006 7:41 PM, Virgil wrote:
In article <4579A2D7.2030500@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>,
Eckard Blumschein <blumschein@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:

First of all I see mounting evidence for a lack of evidence which could
support some bizarre fancies related to the elusory belief introduced by
Dedekind, Cantor, et al. "there must be more reals than rationals
because the latter are a subset of the former"

That is an extremely convoluted way of saying nothing. If there were
evidence of anything wrong, present it. Otherwise quit carping.

I am pointing my finger squarely on the root of all nonsense that has
been confusing and hampering the fundamentals of mathematics for more
than 100 years, and you are trying to belittle my attack?

Take issue!


I hide my daring smile and ask if |sign(0)|=1 might be correct, than
people wonder why I have such a silly idea.

As a "sign()" function is not standardized across mathematics, one can
chose to define one's own in any way one likes, but unless one has some
fairly good reasons for one's definition, it is not likely to gain much
acceptance.

Slippery eel! The sign function is just an example.


.

Relevant Pages

  • Re: A wise decision
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  • Re: Should oo+a=oo be abandoned?
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  • Re: Is one-to-one mapping valid for comparing infinite-sized sets?
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