Re: Infinite sets.
- From: "Jesse F. Hughes" <jesse@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 15 Dec 2006 16:38:24 -0500
"Andrew Usher" <k_over_hbarc@xxxxxxxxx> writes:
It does not make writing "There exists 2" any less wrong.
2 isn't an arbitary symbol.
Quite right!
When we write 2, we mean the number after
1. More generally, whenever we use a 'constant' symbol, we mean the
thing with such-and-such properties.
Saying 'there exists a 2 such that 1 + 1 = 2' is just a definition of
2, and saying 'for all 2 such that 1 + 1 = 2' is no different than 'for
2'.
No, you're simply wrong. In every presentation of first order logic
that I have seen, one cannot quantify constants. And it is utterly
standard (as you say) to interpret the symbol 2 as a constant symbol.
It would be intentionally confusing to use it as anything other than a
constant, an act of stubborn defiance for no real purpose.
--
Jesse F. Hughes
"Certainly he who can digest a second or third fluxion need
not, methinks, be squeamish about any point in divinity."
George Berkeley, 1734
.
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