Re: are imaginary exponents "truly" defined that way?



In article
<1167956275.233775.130190@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
,
jiri.lebl@xxxxxxxxx wrote:

matt271829-news@xxxxxxxxxxx wrote:
I am perpetually confused on this point. Some sources (such as
Mathworld) treat x^(1/2) as single-valued and identically equal to
sqrt(x), and others seem to think that it's multi-valued. There is
similar contradictory evidence about the definition of other fractional
powers - whether they are defined as single-valued (i.e. principal
value is assumed) or multi-valued. You seem fairly certain that
x^(1/2), at least, is properly defined as multi-valued. Is this
definition used by all mathematicians? Is the same true of other
fractional powers?

It is a definition only and depends upon its use. It is nonsensical to
talk about "x^(1/2)" without any context. It is just a formal symbol,
it has no meaning, nor value, nor anything like that on its own. There
is no point in trying to get "one true definition" of this symbol. It
is used in several different contexts and in different contexts it has
different meanings. If you read mathematics and the symbol "x^(1/2)"
is used without it being defined (or implicitly defined), then someone
is trying to pull a fast one on you. Note the following "proof" that
complex numbers are fake:

i = (-1)^(1/2) = (1/-1)^(1/2) = 1 / (-1)^(1/2) = 1/i = i / (i*i) = -i

This is a bit tricky to analyze with the level of
ability attained by someone seeing it for the first
time. The fault lies not where one might expect it.

--
Michael Press
.



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