Re: Is continuum completely filled up?


"David Marcus" <DavidMarcus@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote in message
news:MPG.2014416c9797797c989b24@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
toshiaki wrote:
My question is that why selfreferential statement is permited as
theorem of
mathematics.

Why shouldn't it be?
I cannot judge about it now.
When we use the liar's statement in ordinary conversation, it only leads to
nonsence contradiction.
Though ZF excluded Russel's paradox and other paradoxes from its system, why
doesn't it inhibit
to use this statement to prove the incompleteness theorem?
I'm afraid that this is nonsensical question?

--
David Marcus

Regards
Ozaki Toshiaki



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