Re: Cantor Confusion



David Marcus writes


OK, here is a suggested alternative argument to show that
lim_{n->oo} |x|^n != 0 for all |x| <0

We can consider the mapping from x to y_n given by y_n = |x|^n. The
effect of the exponentiation is to 'stretch' [0,1] non linearly, so that
, depending on the size of n, progressively more points uniformly spaced
originally in [0,1] are concentrated in the bottom of [0,1] in y_n. But,
that doesn't matter - we have plenty of reals. There are as many reals
in any interval of y_n in [0,1] as that of x.

So it doesn't matter how large n becomes - y_n has the same "density" of
reals as x. And that must also apply at the limit n->oo - if it were
true that you could 'stretch' the reals by such a power law, so as to
map all the reals in 0,1 to either 0 or 1, this would be tantamount to
saying that the reals are not continuous on the line - the reals are
infinitely expandable?

So lim_{n->oo} |x|^n cannot be 0 for all |x|<1 ?

Did you read what I wrote? Doesn't seem like it. I'll try again. The
sentence

lim_{n->oo} |x|^n = 0, for |x| < 1

means

lim_{n->oo} |0|^n = 0,
lim_{n->oo} |0.1|^n = 0,
lim_{n->oo} |0.2|^n = 0,
lim_{n->oo} |-0.278|^n = 0,
lim_{n->oo} |0.78|^n = 0,
lim_{n->oo} |sqrt(2)/2|^n = 0,
etc.

That's all it means. It does not mean

lim_{n->oo} sup_{|x|<1} |x|^n.

When we want to say, "lim_{n->oo} sup_{|x|<1} |x|^n", we say, "lim_{n->
oo} sup_{|x|<1} |x|^n". We don't say, "lim_{n->oo} |x|^n = 0, for |x| <
1", because the latter means that lim_{n->oo} |x|^n = 0 for whatever
value of x we happen to try as long as |x| < 1. The only way that

lim_{n->oo} |x|^n = 0, for |x| < 1

can be false, is if there is a real number y such that |y| < 1 and

lim_{n->oo} |y|^n != 0.

Is there such a y?

I can see that I am irritating you. It is not deliberate. It is a
consequence of a misunderstanding on my part of something fundamental.

You say, is there such a y? Well, if we consider the mapping
w = Lim n->oo x^n, 0<=x<=1 , we can consider that as the limit of a
succession of mappings. So, for example we can think of some
representative points located in x e.g x - 0,1/4,1/2,1 on [0,1]. After
x^2 we get
0,1/16,1/4,1 and after x^n these points map to 0,1/(4^n),(1/2^n), 1.
But we still have a continuum of points in [0,1] after n iterations, and
each of these map back to an original location in x. And that has to be
true after n->oo - the line is infinitely elastic. Otherwise you could
define a space between two reals in x?

There is then an inverse mapping from the points in w in [0,1] back to
their original locations in x? And these would all describe the y that
you request?

regards
--
Andy Smith
Phoenix Systems
Mobile: +44 780 33 97 216
Tel: +44 208 549 8878
Fax: +44 208 287 9968
60 St Albans Road
Kingston-upon-Thames
Surrey
KT2 5HH
United Kingdom
.



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